My comment over at the NYT on borders between Israel and 'Palestine':-
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Reading this - "One result of that Arab Revolt was the Peel Commission, which in 1937 was the first to recommend partitioning Palestine" - leaves us with the second result. On May 17, 1939, Gt. Britain unilaterally reneged on the League of Nations Mandate framework, altering the object which was the "reconstitution of the Jewish national home" to simply "The objective of His Majesty's Government is the establishment within 10 years of an independent Palestine State". The practical steps taken were the restriction of Jewish immigration (which allowed Hitler to kill more Jews who could not emigrate to Palestine) as well as limiting land purchases (which helped alter the eventual borders of the 1947 Partition lines).
In addition, the first partition of Palestine was in 1922 when TransJordan territory included in the original Mandate area (note Article 25: "In the territories lying between the Jordan and the eastern boundary of Palestine as ultimately determined...", in other words, areas east of the Jordan were to be included but weren't due to British requirements to placate a Saudi Arabian, brother of Feisal who was dethroned from Damascus and moved to Iraq.
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