In an ugly speech on Monday that served to divide and incite rather than find constructive solutions to racism, Mr. Ahmadinejad said the formation of the state of Israel left “an entire nation homeless under the pretext of Jewish suffering” in order “to establish a totally racist government in occupied Palestine.”
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Reflections:
1. If the formation of the state of Israel refers to 1948, why were Arab residents of the British Mandate living in Judea and Samaria and Gaza "homeless"? All of them?
2. Was Jewish suffering a pretext or, perhaps, the justification of Zionism that only in our own country could Jews defend themselves against suffering?
3. If the Arabs had agreed to the UN Partition resolution and established their Arab State, would it be racist too, or is only a Jewish state racist?
4. What are the borders of "occupied Palestine"?
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2 comments:
Medad, I think your technique of acting all confused and creating confusion with questions that have been somewhere resolved legally (thou not always practically) smart and retarded at the same time.
"What are the borders of "occupied Palestine"". Duhhhhh....
Sorry I don't fit your stereotype fanatic extremist.
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