The Guantanamo Precedent

Do you think that if Israel and some local Arab group ever came to an agreement and they could make an arrangement whereby Judea and Samaria remain under Israel's control that the world would accept it?

Why not?

Here's the basis for American control over Guantanamo Bay:

To enable the United States to maintain the independence of Cuba, and to protect the people thereof, as well as for its own defense, the Cuban Government will sell or lease to the United States the lands necessary for coaling or naval stations, at certain specified points, to be agreed upon with the President of the United States."

Don't forget, Israel is not engaged in possessing "occupied territories".

The war of 1967, when Israel regained those areas originally intended to serve as the land mass of the Jewish National Home which had been separarted from it in 1947, a partition not accepted by the Arabs as an equitable resolution of the 30-year conflcit during the British Mandate period, was not a war of aggression. It was a military action not done for purposes of conquest and gross territorial gain. It was waged in self-defense. This was not criminal as if it was a war of aggression.

Food for thought.