Reaffirming its resolution 43/176 of 15 December 1988, resolution 66/17 of 30 November 2011, and all relevant resolutions regarding the “Peaceful Settlement of the Question of Palestine”, which, inter alia, stress the need for (a) the withdrawal of Israel from the Palestinian territory occupied since 1967, including East Jerusalem; (b) the realization of the inalienable rights of the Palestinian people, primarily the right to self-determination and the right to their independent State;
I have a question:
if the state of Palestine as an independent sovereign entity did not exist before 1967, how can there be something called
the Palestinian territory occupied since 1967,and
including East Jerusalem;
Anyone know?
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