In Balfour's mind, did a Jewish national "home" mean a "state"?
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My thoughts, assertions and observations on issues important to me as a Jew, a Zionist, a Revenant in Yesha and as an inquisitive human being.
About Me
- YMedad
- Shiloh, Benjamin District, Samaria, Israel
- American born, my wife and I moved to Israel in 1970. We have lived at Shiloh together with our family since 1981. I was in the Betar youth movement in the US and UK. I have worked as a political aide to Members of Knesset and a Minister during 1981-1994, lectured at the Academy for National Studies 1977-1994, was director of Israel's Media Watch 1995-2000 and currently, I work at the Menachem Begin Heritage Center in Jerusalem. I was a guest media columnist on media affairs for The Jerusalem Post, op-ed contributor to various journals and for six years had a weekly media show on Arutz 7 radio. I serve as an unofficial spokesperson for the Jewish Communities in Judea & Samaria.
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2 comments:
I would say not, because the Jewish "home" is contrasted both with the "Arab kingdom" and the "autonomous Arab protected state". But then, it was not to be British territory either. I think Balfour was being a bit equivocal.
Since Balfour at the end describes them all as "Buffer states", I'd say yes.
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