I left this comment:
So, in writing "It is hard to make a case that many of Israel’s settlements are anything but an impediment to a final resolution of the conflict with the Palestinians", you have a case that explains why, when there were not Jewish communities in Judea&Samaria (Yesha) between 1949-1967 there was no conflict resolution because....? Nu. Why? And after Disengagement we have peace with Gaza? Maybe there's another impediment - one of the Arabs and one of Jews who can't think straight?
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2 comments:
This thinking suffers from a classic case of philosophically fallacious thinking (see http://www.philosophicalsociety.com/Logical%20Fallacies.htm). Just because there was conflict before for other reasons, does not follow that current conflict could be for this reason, and that the current reason is not an impediment to peace even if there were other reasons before. It is you who cannot think straight.
or the other possibility is that you are wrong. and illogical. and ignoring history.
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